cvalue13
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interested in your take, though. As I read parts, it seems as inch-deep as might expect:This time it's correct, since it's just paraphrasing evidence that already exists.
-Crissa
“ 1. Increased prices for consumers: Scalpers buy Tesla vehicles in bulk and resell them at a markup, which can result in increased prices for consumers who want to buy a Tesla car. This can make Tesla vehicles less accessible and less affordable for some people.”
This appears to be focused only on consumers who pay the scalper’s markup prices? Do we care about them?
“2. Reduced demand for Tesla vehicles: When prices for Tesla vehicles increase due to parasitic profiteering, it can discourage some potential buyers from purchasing a Tesla car, which can lower the demand for Tesla vehicles.”
I don’t know I understand this one. It appears to again focus on consumers who pay the scalper’s markup. If so, it “discourages some potential buyers from purchasing a Tesla car [at above-MSRP prices], which can lower the demand for Tesla vehicles [priced above MSRP].”
ok. So?
“Negative impact on Tesla's brand: When prices for Tesla vehicles increase due to parasitic profiteering, it can lead to negative perceptions of Tesla among some consumers and make Tesla less appealing to potential buyers.”
This one seems uncontroversial (there are consumers that get irritated that Tesla “allows” scalping to happen), but also selective in data (there are other types of consumers for which the hype around the vehicle makes them want one in the first place/more).
Seems uncontroversial that Tesla has to manage customer emotions, regardless of the validity of the basis for those emotions (whether towards to away from the product).
“4. Reduced profit for Tesla: When scalpers buy Tesla vehicles at a low price and resell them at a markup, they are taking profit away from Tesla. This can reduce Tesla's overall profit margin and make it harder for the company to invest in research and development, expansion, and other initiatives.”
This one just seems patently false, or at least begging the exact question asked of it.
Maybe, @Crissa, you can better explicate this for me in the simplified context of the following scenarios (I know you’ll let me know if I’ve accidentally laid out a false dichotomy):
Company A: builds 100 widgets/yr, priced at $1/unit, sells 100 widgets at MSRP to 100 end use customers, Company A earns $100/yr
Company B: builds 100 widgets/yr, priced at $1/unit, sells 100 widgets to 50 end users at MSRP and 50 units to secondary market at MSRP, Company B earns $100/yr (while secondary end user buyers pay $2/unit, for a total of $150/100 units in the full market)
Company C: builds 100 widgets/yr, priced at reverse auction gymnastics, sells 50 widgets at above-expected unit cost ($2/unit), sells 50 widgets at ~expected unit cost ($1/unit), Company D earns $150/yr (end users expend a total of $150/100 units in the full market)
Company D: builds 100 widgets/yr, priced at $2/unit, sells 50 widgets to 50 end users at MSRP, Company C earns $100/yr but has 50 units of stale stock
Obviously, there are other permutations of above outcomes, but the high-level dynamics:
(I) The fastest way to the manufacturing graveyard is being Company D - despite it having the same momentary revenues as Companies A and B (the bullwhip of stranded stock, etc., leading to various poor outcome yr/yr)
(II) Company A has momentary balance of demand
(III) Company B has momentary excess of demand (but believes it a temporary imbalance, and so is cautious to not increase across-the-board pricing and risk becoming Company D)
(IV) Companies A and B made identical revenue off of identical numbers of units, with identical numbers of end users receiving product
(V) Company C made more revenue than either Companies A and B, off identical numbers of units, and selling to identical numbers of end users
(VI) Companies B and C sold to the same number of end users, at identical net cost to consumers in the full market
Seems to me some folks have been asserting that claim (IV) is somehow false, and that (V) is somehow materially more equitable for consumers (since the excess $ goes to Company D rather than secondary market?), l despite the truth it (VI)
I’ve seen no one describe how (IV) is false, or be clear how (V) is more equitable to consumers.
I’ve seen platitudes that (VI) is “better” for the Company, based merely off the observation that $150 in profit is better than $100 in profit. But surveying the world of sophisticated businesses that thrive in environments of demand outstripping supply-at-market-cost, not one of which have adopted some such pricing gymnastics, one might with some humility think those companies have contrary considerations running against the simplistic platitude that “$150 in profit is better than $100 in profit.”
For just one example, anyone here really believe consumers aren’t so fickle as to be just as pissed at the company about auction gamesmanship by the company as they are pissed at 3rd party scalpers the company can’t otherwise control?
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